Wheelock's FAQ chapter 13

Jump to chapter: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 22 23 24 25 29 30 31 33 34 37 38 

Wheelock's FAQ chapter 13: Questions

Questions are listed at the top of the page and are divided into several categories. Click on the links at left and you will be taken to the question and corresponding answer below.
Category: Vocabulary
VOC
I'm confused about all the ipses teaming up with sEs. It seems like a double reflexive and gobbledy gook in English.
VOC
Shouldn't I expect "ipse" to be close (right next to, before, after?) to what it's emphasizing?
VOC
What's the difference between "se" and "ipse"?
VOC
How do you translate "non debet"?
Category: Practice/Repetition sentences (PR's)
PR6
In PR 6, "Ipsi per se" makes no sense.
Category: Sententia Antiquae (SA's)
SA1
In SA 1, I'm not sure what the "-que" is linking.
SA1
Is there any special association at all for "-que", or should it just be considered to be equivalent to "et"?
SA2
"IpsI nihil per sE sine eO facere potuErunt." I'm getting: " For yourself nothing through themselves with him could make." Which of course makes NO sense to me, but I don't see how the pronouns go together to make sense.
SA2
In SA 2, why is the "eO" ablative?
SA4
SA 4: "Quisque ipse sE dIligit, quod quisque per sE sibi cArus est." I have racked my brain and searched, but cannot figure out 'sibi'.
SA5
In SA 5, what does "suum" go with?
Category: Groton and May (GM's)
GM11
In GM 11, what does "eodem loco" mean?

Wheelock's FAQ chapter 13: Answers

Category: Vocabulary
VOC:
I'm confused about all the ipses teaming up with sEs. It seems like a double reflexive and gobbledy gook in English.
A:

David C.'s answer:

Latin doesn't require the pronoun so it can use ipse without a pronoun. English requires a pronoun, hence the doubling up.
VOC:
Shouldn't I expect "ipse" to be close (right next to, before, after?) to what it's emphasizing?
A:
No. Ipse can be, and often is, used all by itself, as in the third example
Wheelock gives on p. 85. It's like "iste". Just as "iste" means "that bad person
or thing", "ipse" means "that very person or thing."
VOC:
What's the difference between "se" and "ipse"?
A:

Joe Ireland's answer:

"se" can only be accusative or ablative and is reflexive, Rhonda.

Ipse can mean "self" in the nominative case, without reference to a specific person i.e. you can write "ego ipse ...." (I myself), "tu ipse..." (you yourself) or "Cicero ipse ..." (Cicero himself) and that is the usage you want. Self, in that sense, simply emphasises the subject.

"me, te and se" can be used as reflexive forms in the accusative case that turn the verb back onto the subject. I guess the difference in English can be demonstrated by

1. Cicero washes himself or
2. Cicero himself washes the dog.

The first "himself" would be "se", and the second "ipse". Hope that makes it a bit clearer.
VOC:
How do you translate "non debet"?
A:

Mary McClavey writes:

How about "He ought not"?

Meredith writes:

Or "He should not...." "Debeo" is more moral obligation than command. "Must not" in the English sense is usually handled by the passive periphrastic, which you'll learn about in Chapter 24. "Need not" is handled with "non necesse est", "It is not necessary to...."
Category: Practice/Repetition sentences (PR's)
PR6:
In PR 6, "Ipsi per se" makes no sense.
A:

Joe Ireland's answer:

The "ipsi per se" is really a unit standing by itself meaning "they by themselves" or "they alone", and you don't need to intensify it further in a word-for-word deal like "they themselves by themselves".
Category: Sententia Antiquae (SA's)
SA1:
In SA 1, I'm not sure what the "-que" is linking.
A:

Joe Ireland's answer:

The sentence is two coordinate clauses. So try taking "ad eos" (towards them) as the predicate of contendebat, and equites as the object of misit.
SA1:
Is there any special association at all for "-que", or should it just be considered to be equivalent to "et"?
A:

In classical Latin, -que is usually used with two words thought of as a set or pair (for more, see C. J. Cherryh's on-line Latin lessons). Usually this is the case: "Gladius scutumque", "viri feminaeque", etc. But in some cases, as in this sentence, the connection can be pretty loose, and might involve phrases and not just single words.

In later Latin, this was relaxed even more. In the Vulgate, for example, it is used to connect whole sentences:

  3 Dixitque Deus: " Fiat lux ". Et facta est lux.
  4 Et vidit Deus lucem quod esset bona et divisit Deus lucem ac tenebras.
  5 Appellavitque Deus lucem Diem et tenebras Noctem. Factumque est vespere et mane, dies unus.

The Vulgate usage is rather unusual, however. And "-que" is only used instead of "et" as a conjunction, not "et" as an equivalent for "etiam."

SA2:
"IpsI nihil per sE sine eO facere potuErunt." I'm getting: " For yourself nothing through themselves with him could make." Which of course makes NO sense to me, but I don't see how the pronouns go together to make sense.
A:
Note that ipsi can be either dative singular or nominitive plural.
Here, it's "They themselves", in the nominative. For some helpful
examples, look carefully at the "ipse" example sentences on the
page before the PR's and SA's. They have an example much like this.
SA2:
In SA 2, why is the "eO" ablative?
A:

David C.'s answer:

Sine requires ablative - without eo they, well, they are pretty useless.
SA4:
SA 4: "Quisque ipse sE dIligit, quod quisque per sE sibi cArus est." I have racked my brain and searched, but cannot figure out 'sibi'.
A:
Sibi is really part of "sibi carus", i.e. dear to himself.
SA5:
In SA 5, what does "suum" go with?
A:

David C's answer:

The thing it goes with is not written. Compare:

You have your books, I have my books.
You have your books, I have mine.
Category: Groton and May (GM's)
GM11:
In GM 11, what does "eodem loco" mean?
A:
"idem" means "the same." So "eOdem locO" is "in the same place."
Last updated Thu Nov 13 17:11:12 GMT 2003

FAQ ©2003 by its creator Gary Bisaga and Meredith Minter Dixon. Copyright to FAQ answers is retained by their authors.